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100% Pass Quiz 8020 - ORM Certificate - 2023 Update High Hit-Rate Detailed Study Dumps

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PRMIA 8020 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic
Details

Topic 1

Introduction: This section of the exam measures the skills of Risk Analysts and covers fundamental concepts of risk governance, management, and assessment. It introduces key principles, regulatory frameworks, and industry best practices for identifying and addressing risks. A key skill measured is understanding the foundational principles of risk management.

Topic 2

Case Studies: This section of the exam measures the skills of Business Risk Consultants and covers real-world applications of risk management concepts. It examines case studies on risk governance, assessment, and mitigation strategies across different industries. A key skill measured is analyzing historical risk events for strategic insights.

Topic 3

Risk Assessment: This section of the exam measures the skills of Financial Risk Analysts and covers methodologies for evaluating risks in different domains, including qualitative and quantitative approaches. It focuses on assessing vulnerabilities, threats, and potential impacts on business operations. A key skill measured is conducting risk impact analysis for financial threats.

Topic 4

Risk Management Framework: This section of the exam measures the skills of Risk Managers and covers the development and implementation of structured approaches for risk identification, evaluation, and mitigation. It includes industry-standard frameworks that guide risk strategy and decision-making. A key skill measured is establishing a risk management framework for organizations.

PRMIA ORM Certificate - 2023 Update Sample Questions (Q20-Q25):

NEW QUESTION # 20
Which of the following best describes the role of the compliance department?

A. The compliance department is responsible for providing oversight over the board's implementation of compliance risk management controls.
B. The compliance department is responsible for implementing the first line's compliance risk management controls.
C. The compliance department is responsible for providing oversight over the auditor's implementation of compliance risk management controls.
D. The compliance department is responsible for providing oversight over the first line's implementation of compliance risk management controls.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Three Lines of Defense Model
The compliance department functions as the second line of defense, ensuring oversight over the first line's compliance controls.
It does not directly implement controls but monitors and advises on compliance risk management.
Responsibilities of the Compliance Department
Ensures regulatory compliance with laws, policies, and industry standards.
Monitors and enforces risk management controls within business operations.
Provides advisory and training on compliance risks.
Why Answer D is Correct
The first line of defense (business operations) is responsible for executing compliance controls.
The compliance department (second line) provides oversight and governance to ensure compliance adherence.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . The compliance department is responsible for implementing the first line's compliance risk management controls.
Incorrect - The first line (business units) implement compliance controls, while compliance oversees.
B . The compliance department is responsible for providing oversight over the auditor's implementation of compliance risk management controls.
Incorrect - Internal audit is part of the third line of defense, not directly overseen by compliance.
C . The compliance department is responsible for providing oversight over the board's implementation of compliance risk management controls.
Incorrect - The board provides high-level governance; compliance ensures business adherence to regulations.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Governance & Compliance Oversight Framework
Basel Committee's Guidelines on Compliance Risk Management

NEW QUESTION # 21
Which of the following principles best applies to a compliance function?

A. The risk function should be outsourced if there is a compliance function.
B. The compliance function should report to the business (even when following a three lines of defense model).
C. The compliance function should be independent of the business (following a three lines of defense model).
D. The compliance function should be outsourced if there is a risk function.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Step 1: Compliance Function and the Three Lines of Defense Model
The Three Lines of Defense (3LoD) model ensures that risk management responsibilities are properly segregated:
First Line: Business units (own and manage risk).
Second Line: Compliance and risk management (independent oversight).
Third Line: Internal audit (provides assurance).
Step 2: Why Compliance Must Be Independent
PRMIA and Basel Compliance Principles state that compliance should not report to business units, as this creates a conflict of interest.
Compliance must be independent to ensure objective oversight of regulatory adherence.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Report to the business") → Incorrect because compliance must provide independent oversight, not report to business units.
Option C ("Outsource compliance if risk function exists") → Incorrect because compliance and risk functions have distinct roles.
Option D ("Outsource risk if compliance exists") → Incorrect because risk management is a core function, not an outsourcing candidate.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Compliance Risk Governance - States compliance must be independent under the Three Lines of Defense model.
Basel Compliance Principles - Recommends separate reporting structures for compliance and business units.
Final Conclusion:
Compliance must be independent from the business to avoid conflicts of interest, making Option B the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 22
For credit risk losses containing operational risk elements that have been historically included in an organizations' credit risk database how should the loss amount be treated?

A. The entire loss amount is treated as credit risk, but the loss is entered as a memorandum within the operational loss database and not used for capital modeling purposes.
B. The entire loss amount is treated as credit risk
C. The entire loss amount is treated as operational risk.
D. The loss amount is split into credit and operational risk components.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Understanding Credit Risk and Operational Risk Overlap
In some cases, credit risk losses contain elements of operational risk, such as fraud, documentation errors, or IT failures affecting credit transactions.
Basel II and III frameworks require institutions to distinguish between pure credit risk losses and operational risk components within those losses.
Treatment of Losses
The credit-related portion is accounted for under credit risk capital calculations.
The operational risk portion (e.g., fraud-related losses) should be classified separately and included in operational risk databases for risk measurement.
Why Answer C is Correct
Basel III and PRMIA recommend a clear split between credit risk and operational risk components to ensure accurate risk modeling.
If operational risk elements are ignored, an organization may underestimate its true operational risk exposure.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . The entire loss amount is treated as credit risk.
Incorrect - This ignores operational risk components that should be accounted for separately.
B . The entire loss amount is treated as operational risk.
Incorrect - Credit risk losses are typically dominant in lending-related losses and should not be fully classified as operational risk.
D . The entire loss amount is treated as credit risk, but the loss is entered as a memorandum within the operational loss database and not used for capital modeling purposes.
Incorrect - The operational risk portion must be considered for capital modeling, not just recorded as a memo.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
Basel II & III Guidelines on Credit and Operational Risk Integration
PRMIA Operational Risk Framework

NEW QUESTION # 23
In the Basel III standardized approach for operational risk, what is the Business Indicator?

A. It is a non-financial-statement-based proxy for operational risk.
B. It is a scaling factor that is based on a bank's average historical losses.
C. It is a proxy for operational risks that relate to near-miss events.
D. It is a financial-statement-based proxy for operational risk.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Step 1: Definition of the Business Indicator (BI) in Basel III
The Business Indicator (BI) is a financial-statement-based metric used in Basel III's Standardized Approach for Operational Risk.
It replaces previous approaches by using financial figures (e.g., revenue, fees, interest income) to estimate operational risk exposure.
Step 2: Why Option D Is Correct
The BI uses financial-statement data to calculate operational risk capital requirements.
It acts as a proxy for a bank's operational risk exposure by linking operational risk to its financial size and complexity.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Proxy for near-miss events") → Incorrect because BI is based on financial data, not near-miss risk events.
Option B ("Non-financial-statement-based proxy") → Incorrect because BI is explicitly derived from financial statements.
Option C ("Scaling factor based on historical losses") → Incorrect because BI does not use historical losses directly-it relies on financial-statement inputs.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
Basel III Operational Risk Framework - Defines the Business Indicator as a financial-statement-based metric.
PRMIA Operational Risk Guidelines - Explains the BI's role in capital calculations.

NEW QUESTION # 24
For the Northern Rock case study, what was the low-probability-high-impact event that was most responsible for the loss event?

A. Liquidity dried up in the inter-bank and commercial paper markets.
B. The Bank of England's withdrawal of Deposit Protection.
C. The acquisition of Merrill Lynch by Bank of America.
D. An exposure to real estate funds, heavily concentrated in Berlin.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Step 1: Understanding the Northern Rock Case Study
Northern Rock was a UK bank that collapsed in 2007 due to its heavy reliance on short-term wholesale funding rather than customer deposits.
When the 2007 financial crisis hit, the inter-bank lending market and commercial paper market froze, cutting off Northern Rock's access to liquidity.
Step 2: Why Option C Is Correct
Northern Rock depended on short-term borrowing to fund long-term mortgage lending.
When the liquidity crisis hit, it couldn't refinance its debt, leading to a bank run and collapse.
The Bank of England had to intervene, and the UK government nationalized Northern Rock in 2008.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Acquisition of Merrill Lynch") → Incorrect because this happened in 2008, after Northern Rock's failure.
Option B ("Withdrawal of Deposit Protection") → Incorrect because UK deposit protection remained in place.
Option D ("Real estate exposure in Berlin") → Incorrect because Northern Rock's problem was funding liquidity, not real estate losses.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Liquidity Risk Management Framework - Describes how liquidity shocks impact banks like Northern Rock.
Basel III Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) Standards - Created after Northern Rock to prevent similar liquidity crises.
Final Conclusion:
The collapse of the inter-bank and commercial paper markets was the key low-probability-high-impact event that led to Northern Rock's failure, making Option C the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 25
......

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